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Removing leverage = infinite loop?
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- Firstly, arrange the data in a certain order, eg based on variable x1 in an ascending order?
- Secondly, segment them into few groups, with each contains about 30 - 60 data.
- Thirdly, 'generate variance estimates for each range'. Do the 'estimates' mean the real measured y in the data set but not the estimated/predicted y from the model? Here is the complication. As the instrument measurement error is not available in this case, and if the variance is calculated based on the measured or estimated/predicted y using the ' V = var([y1:y60])' function, the variance values will be affected depending how the data is arranged, right?
- Lastly, do the regression with the weight.
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- Finding the variance within from each individual source (publication) may not be right, because different x1 will result in different y values.
- However, I think I can first group the data based on x1, eg: data where x1 ranging from 20 - 40 as group one, 41 - 60 as group two and let say five main groups are created. Then, within each of these groups, another three subgroups are created based on another variable, let say x2. And, no sub-subgroups are created as this will make the data thin. So, in total, I will have 5 main x 3 sub = 15 groups. I think this is the most appropriate point where I find the variance for these 15 groups?
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